MICROBIOLOGY 403: THIRD EXAM KEY

Average score: 74%
Maximum score: 102%
Minimum score: 43%





Final scale (Total points):
297 - 265 (88%) = A
264 - 206 (69%) = B
205 - 168 (56%) = C
167 - 150 (50%) = D
Less than 150 = F
Curve

Section I. Quantitative relationships

Questions numbered 1 through 25 count 2 points each (50 points).


B 1. (1) The use of a live vaccine for the prevention of diphtheria.
(2) The use of an inactivated vaccine for the prevention of diphtheria.
B 2. (1) The occurrence of a viremic stage during infection by Parainfluenza virus.
(2) The occurrence of a viremic stage during infection by Measles virus.
A 3. (1) The probability that a primary Herpes Simplex viral infection will be asymptomatic.
(2) The probability that a primary Varicella-Zoster viral infection will be asymptomatic.
C 4. (1) The formation of an icosahedral capsid around the genome of a Togavirus.
(2) The formation of an icosahedral capsid around the genome of a Herpesvirus.
A 5. (1) The ability of EBV to produce a latent infection within lymphocytes.
(2) The ability of VZV to produce a latent infection within lymphocytes.
B 6. (1) The number of different Poliovirus serotypes.
(2) The number of different Rhinovirus serotypes.
A 7. (1) The incidence of disease in North America that is caused by Treponema pallidum.
(2) The incidence of disease in North America that is caused by Treponema pertenue.
A 8. (1) The role of ticks in the transmission of spotted fever to humans.
(2) The role of ticks in the transmission of Q fever to humans.
A 9. (1) The ability to grow C. diphtheriae on agar media.
(2) The ability to grow C. trachomatis on agar media.
B 10. (1) The ability of Hepatitis A virus to produce a chronic infection.
(2) The ability of Hepatitis C virus to produce a chronic infection.
A 11. (1) The role of IgG in host defense against Mumps virus.
(2) The role of IgG in host defense against RSV.
C 12. (1) The ability of Influenza B virus to undergo the process of antigenic shift.
(2) The ability of HIV to undergo the process of antigenic shift.
B 13. (1) The occurrence of intranuclear inclusions following infection by Rhabdovirus.
(2) The occurrence of intracytoplasmic inclusions following infection by Rhabdovirus.
B 14. (1) The utility of performing an acid-fast strain of sputum to help identify Corynebacteria.
(2) The utility of performing an acid-fast strain of sputum to help identify Mycobacteria.
B 15. (1) The incidence of Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia in the general population.
(2) The incidence of Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia in AIDS patients.
A 16. (1) The spread of the rash from the trunk to the extremities (centrifugal) as a characteristic of typhus.
(2) The spread of the rash from the trunk to the extremities (centrifugal) as a characteristic of spotted fever.
C 17. (1) The role of an animal reservoir in the transmission of Poliovirus.
(2) The role of an animal reservoir in the transmission of Rubellavirus.
B 18. (1) The ability of the HIV gp120 glycoprotein to recognize and bind to the T-cell receptor molecule.
(2) The ability of the HIV gp120 glycoprotein to recognize and bind to the CD4 molecule.
A 19. (1) The ability of the Picornavirus genome to be directly translated by the host cell ribosomes.
(2) The ability of the Paramyxovirus genome to be directly translated by the host cell ribosomes.
A 20. (1) The role of the humoral immune response in host defense against Leptospira.
(2) The role of the cell-mediated immune response in host defense against Leptospira.
B 21. (1) The length of the hydrocarbon chains found in the mycolic acids from Corynebacteria.
(2) The length of the hydrocarbon chains found in the mycolic acids from Mycobacteria.
A 22. (1) The association between the organism Borrelia recurrentis and the disease epidemic relapsing fever.
(2) The association between the organism Borrelia recurrentis and the disease endemic relapsing fever.
B 23. (1) The association between the "Australian antigen" and Hepatitis A virus.
(2) The association between the "Australian antigen" and Hepatitis B virus.
A 24. (1) Transmission of smallpox via the respiratory route.
(2) Transmission of smallpox via the fecal-oral route.
A 25. (1) The classification of West Nile encephalitis virus as a member of the Flavivirus group.
(2) The classification of Eastern Equine encephalitis virus as a member of the Flavivirus group.




Section II. Multiple Choice (2 points each, 26 points total).
Questions 26-28: Indicate the one most important HOST DEFENSE MECHANISM listed on the right for each of the AGENTS listed on the left. Each lettered choice may be used once, more than once or not at all.
C 26. Smallpox virus A. Cell-mediated immunity
A 27. Mycobacterium tuberculosis B. Antitoxin antibodies
C 28. Mumps virus C. Neutralizing antibodies
D. Opsonization/phagocytosis
E. Anatomical barriers
F. None

Questions 29-33: Indicate the one most important CONTROL METHOD listed on the right for each of the DISEASE AGENTS listed on the left. Each lettered choice may be used once, more than once or not at all.
A or C 29. Hepatitis A virus A. Vaccination
A 30. Rubella virus B. Avoiding human contacts
D 31. Chikungungya virus C. Sanitation/Safe water supply
B 32. Treponema pallidum D. Vector control
D 33. Borrelia hermsii E. None of the above

Questions 34-38: Indicate the one most important MODE OF TRANSMISSION listed on the right for each of the DISEASES or VIRUSES listed on the left. Each lettered choice may be used once, more than once or not at all.
B 34. Coxsackie A. Respiratory
C 35. Trench fever B. Fecal-oral
C 36. Yellow fever C. Arthropod/Insect-borne
D 37. Hepatitis B Virus D. Blood-borne
C 38. Alphavirus E. All of the above
F. None of the above




Section III. Diagnostic questions (3 points each, 24 points total).
Questions 39 through 46 ask you to presumptively diagnose the etiologic agent of a specific disease scenario based on three facts that include i) patient history, ii) clinical presentation and iii) selected laboratory findings. Respond to each question by choosing the most likely organism from the following list. Each organism may be used once, more than once, or not at all.


A. Borrelia burgdorferi B. Chlamydia trachomatis C. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
D. Coxsackie virus E. Hepatitis A virus F. Hepatitis B virus
G. HIV H. Measles virus I. Mumps virus
J. Mycobacterium tuberculosis K. Orthomyxovirus L. Respiratory Syncytial virus
M. Rhabdovirus N. Rickettsia rickettsii O. Rickettsia typhi
P. Treponema pallidum R. Varicella-Zoster virus S. Yellow Fever virus

O 39. i) patient is a 21-year old college student who just returned from a hiking trip, ii) patient complains of a fever and headache and a rash that began on the abdomen and has just spread to the arms and legs, iii) the patient’s serum shows an increase in antibodies specific for Proteus OX-19.
D 40. i) patient is a 3-year old child, ii) mother says the child complained of a fever, sore throat and headache but now presents with an aseptic meningitis, iii) a positive-stranded RNA virus is recovered from the feces.
J 41. i) patient is a 59-year old male diabetic, ii) patient reports some weight loss, weakness, pain in the chest, and a productive cough that has lasted for 4 weeks, iii) a smear of sputum reveals acid-fast bacteria.
G 42. i) patient is a 27-year old male, ii) patient is returning for the third episode of a serious Salmonella infection, iii) follow-up tests on the patient reveal an exceedingly low T-cell count.
K 43. i) patient is a 55-year old male alcoholic janitor who smokes frequently, ii) patient experiences a sudden acute disease characterized by fever, runny nose, headache and muscle aches, iii) patients serum reveals anti-hemagglutinin antibodies.
C 44. i) patient has no history of childhood vaccination, ii) symptoms include malaise, sore throat and pseudomembranous material, iii) culture of sputum on tellurite media reveals black colonies.
M 45. i) patient is a wildlife researcher, ii) patient is hospitalized with fever, extreme anxiety and excessive salivation, iii) after death of the patient, an autopsy revealed intracytoplasmic inclusions in brain tissue.
L 46. i) patient is a 6-month old infant, ii) patient has a severe lower respiratory tract infection, iii) a sample taken from the child reveals multinucleated giant cells.
  
BONUS: What is the name of the infectious agent implicated in producing cervical cancer (2 pts)?
 Human Papilloma Virus (HPV)
  
 What is the name of the vaccine that may prevent many cases of cervical cancer (2 pts)?
 Gardasil®